This is a point-in-time question: where is the underlying on one specific date? It ignores everything that happens in between, which makes it the right measure for a European-style position held to expiry and the wrong one for assessing whether a short strike will be tested.
Platforms compute it from the same model that produces the Greeks, so it inherits every assumption in that model — including the lognormal-assumption and the volatility used as input. Two brokers can show different numbers for the same contract.
Example: XYZ at $50, the 45-day $45 put shows a 22% probability of expiring in the money. That is the modelled chance XYZ closes below $45 on that one Friday, not the chance it visits $45 at any point.
Related: probability-of-touch, delta-as-probability, probability-of-profit, standard-deviation-move